Okay bit of a confusing situation here
I own a mortgaged house (which I bought in 2011) which my now wife has not been added to yet but she has been living there since I bought it.
We married in 2013
In 2015 we bought a buy to let property in joint names
In 2016 just before the SDLT 3% surcharge we bought another buy to let property but due to some bad credit history on my wifes credit report I had to buy the buy to let in my sole name as we were having trouble getting a joint mortgage.
We are now in a position where we want to move home but we want to buy in joint names. As my wife is a joint owner on 1 of the buy to lets will this main residence purchase be classed as a second home and be liable for the 3% surcharge?
Also not sure whether its worth noting but before we met my wife jointly owned a property with her brother but this got sold over 5 years ago.
Any advice will be greatly appreciated as I'm losing sleep at night over this!
Cheers
Nigel
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