Thank-you to everyone that replied. Yes I do have £120k in cash. My take-away is that I will not be able to offset the loan interest on the existing loan unless I actually pay off and then withdraw the amount. I have had a look at the Skipton website and it does not mention flexibility to withdraw after overpayment. I will call them this week to make absolutely sure.
It seems a bit artificial paying off £120k and then immediately withdrawing £120k. Could I not argue that informally assigning the loan purpose to buy to let has the same effect? I guess the problem is demonstrating that the £120k loan is for the buy to let. Could I do this by commercially justifying the informal assigning by maybe getting quotes on a BTL mortgage and then comparing on a commercial basis the BTL mortgage with commercial assignment, Something along the lines of:
Informal AssignmentRental Income p.a. £5,000
Mortage Interest (informal assignment) £3,600
Net Income (informal assignment) £1,400
compared to
BTL MortageRental Income p.a. £5,000
Mortgage Interest (at say 4%) £4,800
Arrangement Fees (say) £1,000
Net Loss (BTL mortgage) (£800)
The Inland revenue would actually earn more tax under the informal assignment!!
