Buy-to-Let interest overpayments

[Matt15]

A client with a buy to let property has an interest only mortgage. They are paying much more each month than is neccessary to service the mortgage. Is the actual mortgage interest that they have been paying allowable as a cost each year, or should it be just the amounts that they should have paid? If it is the amounts that they have paid then this is open to manipulation to ensure that the property never returns a profit during the period it is rented out.
Thanks for any advice.

[Peter D]

No, the overpayment is not allowable. These overpayment's accumulate is a side account attracting no, or very little interest and are not used to pay the interest due on the account. These monies can be withdraw by the account holder and used for personnal use. This would be classed as tax evasion if not fraud. Regards Peter

[Matt15]

Hi Peter. That was as I thought. Thanks for the confirmation.