I tried to read the HMRC CGT booklet but it looks more like computer logic half way in referencing exceptions that reference more exceptions.
I have worked and paid taxes in my former expat country for 9 years but I decided to travel hard for 2 years from early 2010 while investing in stocks in a country with no CGT on gains. Would I be liable for UK tax if I decided to pay for a house outright in cash then expat out again ? I think I am effectively "stateless" just now enjoying some time away from the 9-5 machine travelling across Asia.In the time away from the UK I have never been in the UK more than 2 weeks every 2-4 years.
At the end of my work contract early 2010 I had to visit my dad as he was sick and instead of staying 1 week I stayed 10 weeks in 2010 (less than 90 days) while he went in for a serious op. and I did execute my first stock purchase offshore in that time period while in the UK .
I had to no intention to stay in the UK beyond visiting my parents,nor did I work while there.
If I'm going to descend into having to justify not paying CGT to HMRC on my stocks investing (potential of 2x or 3x increase since early 2010 ) based on executing my purchase and not having a work contract outside the UK then I'll just have to invest outside the UK.I will not be going back to the UK anytime soon but I wanted to buy a BMV (below market value) house outright in cash then maybe remortgage it with an expat BTL mortgage once I get a new job in 2012.














