by Matt@callunatax on Mon Mar 21, 2011 5:08 pm
Your reading of NIM02195 is indeed correct. But it doesn't change the liability to the employer, it simply moves the liability to Class1a NIC (payable by employer only) from Class 1 NIC (payable by employee and employer). I will attempt to summarise the main points below:
Class 1a NIC (instead of Class 1 NIC) is payable where the contract is between the employer and the supplier. In this case the employee would only be subject to tax on the benefit provided and no Class 1 NIC. The benefit would be entered on the employee's P11d and the employer would pay Class 1a NIC when forms P11d and P11d(b) are submitted.
Class 1 NIC is payable where the contract is between the employee and the supplier and the employer settles this on the employee's behalf. In such a case the employee would be subject to tax on the benefit by reporting it on their P11d and Class 1 NIC by collecting it through the payroll in the earnings period the payment is made. Employer's NIC is collected at the same time as the employee Class 1 NIC.
When an individual takes an item to the till which they are intending to purchase they at that point are entering into a personal contract. Then if that contract is concluded by using an employer credit card, which is not reimbursed to the employer, the employer has settled an employee personal liability.
By making a statement that this being purchased in behalf of the employer before the item is paid for moves the contract to that between the employer and supplier, so the NIC treatment changes.
Hope this helps, NIC can be very fiddly as you can see, which is why many employers fall foul of this in a PAYE audit.
If you need any further input then please feel free to contact me direct, my details are below.
Regards