I do have full records because all my work is booked and sent to me by email using spreadsheets. I have never been VAT registered and have gone over the threshold this year and last. Obviously customers were not charged VAT (all private customer, not businesses) so what will happen in this situation? Am I right in thinking that I will be liable for all the VAT that should have been collected?
Yes. Disclosure is very important; you need good advice from an accountant who is used to dealing with such matters. Then you need to cough to HMRC. Expect to pay all tax/VAT, interest and monetary penalties. They will want to know precisely what you did/didn't do, and why.
I know a solicitor who earns alot of money and owns property through a limited company. For some reason he pays his tenants council tax and other bills and counts that as an expense. I work for many landlords and have never come across this before. Could someone tell me the precise reason for doing this? He owns around 80 properties and pays all the council tax himself.
It might be because he has dodgy tenants who can't be trusted to pay the bills themselves. And remember that to get tax relief at whatever percentage (20% or 40%) he has to lay out the money in the first place. A deduction for tax purposes does not "return" the expenditure to you - it reduces the amount on which you pay tax.