by Lambs on Sun Oct 30, 2011 3:50 pm
Care is needed as it is not automatically the case that the advance made to the individual may simply be offset by the credit balance on the DLA.
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/manuals/ctmanual/ctm61550.htm
This is of course CTSA so in the first instance the decision as to whether or not the dividend is a repayable loan lies with the company itself.
However, it is not clear whether or not the "relevant accounts" would have supported the full dividend. If the company's distributable reserves to APE 31/03/09 would have supported the dividend but it made losses in the APE 31/03/10, then my understanding is that since the relevant accounts for the purposes of determining whether or not a dividend was 'legal' would be those to 2009, your client might be OK.
Please see http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/manuals/ctmanual/ctm20095.htm and in particular the section entitled "Relevant Accounts" although the full page may be of interest.
It is my experience that despite this being HMRC's own guidance, HM Inspector rarely understands the point, so be prepared for an uphill struggle even if the 2009 position saves your client!
Regards,
Lambs