investment property owned 50 / 50 with limited company

[funcrusherbill]

An investment property is owned by two persons as tenants-in -common. One then transfers his share to his limited company. Does this effect the tax treatment of the other person's 50% share, ie rental income and CGT on sale?

Thanks for any help

[Ian McTernan CTA]

Don't you usually answer queries on this forum? If this is a made up question and you know the answer, then write a brief article on it and post it up, explaining your reasoning.

If you want an answer to a specific query (i.e. involving real people), then feel free to repost with my apologies.

Ian McTernan CTA
McTernan Associates Ltd
Chartered Tax Advisers
ian@imcternan.com

[funcrusherbill]

You misjudge me. I am an amateur who came to the site seeking answers to real questions which effect me as I reorganise my affairs on retirement. However, those who expect to receive should also be prepared to give, so in the spirit of the site I have offered a few answers to matters which I also have encountered in 40 years in business life.

I don't know the answer. A landlord is not a trade, so presumably rules governing taxation of trading partnerships between an individual and a company (ie corporate tax rules take precedence) do not apply.

Do you know the answer?