by boyyo on Tue Jul 19, 2011 10:41 am
Hello, and thanks for the responses.
I may not have been very clear, so here is a better explanantion..
Existing family home with a very low mortgage (<£7K) and the potential to borrow @ 1.75% up to £150K on a flexi tracker mortgage.
Existing Appartment owned by me only and lived in by me for the first 4 years which has been rented out for 14 years, all delared and above board on along term lease. In 6 months the only mortgage will be on a repayment basis with 6 years to run. BS is fully aware that it is let out and did'nt ask me to go onto Buy to Let mortgage. This means that I am on a a flexi tracker mortgage which is currently @ 2.25%.
I am capable and qualified (although far removed from my current occupation) to carry out reasonable restorations on buildings and therefore can add value to a property.
We have the opportunity to purchase an appartment and are looking to utilise our existing Credit sources at the attractive rates to purchase it.
Based upon the following assumptions...and I know how good we all are at those!
Interest @ 4% across the TOTAL borrowings. Mortgage would be on a repayment basis so that we end up with something for the kids, and I lost £8K on an Interest only Endowment this year!
Rental income @ 90% of market value to keep occupancy high and cover potential dead spots....even though the current tennant has been there for 9 years with no intention of moving on. I would only do 12 month Lease minimum on the new Appartment and all done directly so no agency fees.
Gross profit would be approx £5400 p/a less 20% maintenance (=£4320), which is good have, and whatever additional value there would be in the house itself. I personally can't believe that it would depreciate over this term...It never has for me so far!!
My question is, would it be better to have my better half buy it and what are the tax implications...or any other considerations I need to take account of!
As always, any information greatfully received,
I