Hi all,
I wonder if you can help with some (rudimentary) CGT questions. I have attempted to search the forum but haven't found exactly what I need.
I currently own a property in Yorkshire but work commitments have meant that I have had to work in the South East for the last three years. The owned property is in quite a stagnant area of house movement - I have managed to rent the property out once for 5 months (end 2013) but otherwise it has been entirely unoccupied. The house has been up for sale since January of this year with just one viewing to date.
Having got bored of paying landlords for sub-standard property rentals in the South East, I have decided to purchase my own property in the area in which I work. I intended to fund the purchase with the sale of my own property but two previous purchases have fallen through in this manner as there is little/no interest in my Yorkshire home. As of next February, I should have enough money to raise a deposit from my own funds irrespective of interest in my owned home.
I therefore have two questions:
(1) Having not lived in my property in Yorkshire for 3 years, but being the only property I owned, was there any need to declare this as my "Primary " residence or is that only relevant when it comes to the ownership of two homes? I have not been on the Electoral Roll there for this period and I'm not sure what proof is needed, if any, that this currently is my PPR.
(2) Given that I am not at all confident that my house will sell in the CGT 'window', is there anything I can do to extend the period or minimise the losses to CGT?
Thanks,
B.
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