Please would you clarify my situation as even my solicitor is unsure of the answer.
In 2005 I bought a property for my daughter and I as a main residence.
In 2008 we let it out when I moved in with my boyfriend who I then married in 2014. He has no mortgage and the title deeds are in his sole name.
I am now selling my property and with the proceeds will clear my mortgage and buy a cheaper property for my daughter (who currently lives with us).
Will the higher rate of SDLT apply??
Thanks in advance.
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