I do apologise for revisiting the question that I asked on 11 August but I feel as though I am wading through treacle.
Does anyone have an opinion on whether conveyancing solicitors should have been aware of the linked properties clause in the Finance Act 2003? The solicitors simply refer me back to the Inland Revenue and have taken no responsibility for not giving me advice in the first place.
Any opinion gratefully recieved.
Thx














