by Father*Ted on Wed Oct 20, 2010 1:37 pm
Please tell me if this is a daft idea, but ....
I'm negotiating to buy a house at a price of £295k and will therefore face a bill for stamp duty of £8.85k, making a total of £303,850. When looking for a suitable house I encountered several web sites that listed previous selling prices of individual houses, averages for the street, and so on; some offered to estimate current value, based on previous selling price and market trend. With such information freely available, and all other things being equal, a house that sold today for £300k would be valued higher at some point in the future than one that sold for £295k. But more than that, my own feeling is that a house that sold for £300k would appear subjectively to be in a "higher bracket" than one that sold for £2xxk. I would be interested to find out what others think about offering to pay a purchase price of £304,150 (say) with a proviso that the vendor pays the stamp duty (£9,125), leaving the vendor no worse off. It would cost me £300 as the total stamp duty payable would be greater, but the potential benefit would be a greater perceived value on the house when the time came to sell. Would it be legal? Is it worth doing? As far as I know, there are no current CGT issues. Any thought, anyone?