I have tried searching the forums (back to 2009 threads) but weren't able to find an answer to my query. I would be very grateful if anyone can offer any advice for my situation.
I have fully paid of my house (end of 2010) which is valued around 240k. This was purchased by me alone in 2002 for 149k.
Since then I have married my wife and we are hopefully soon to be buying a bigger house as we have 1 child and 1 coming soon (mortgage has been arranged and some family members are lending me cash to avoid me causing a chain so not depending on sale of 1st house)
However, I am trying to sell it .. just so that we have more cash for a rainy day and so I can pay back family members asap. Finding a buyer is hard at the moment with mortgages quite hard to come by for FTBs.
Anyway, as an alternative I/we are considering potentially renting out the 1st house. Problem is the house/deeds are in my name only and I would therefore be liable to 40% tax.
My wife has never bought a property. What is the best way to:
a) Have the 1st house in her name only without incurring charges/taxes possible? (or as much as possible, is 99% her and 1% me)
b) Would my wife be free from SDLT as she is a FTB and house is valued below the 250k threshold?
c) When letting out the 1st house, would my wife only have to pay tax above the £7,475 personal allowance at the 20% rate? (assuming the house was transferred to her name only)
e.g. £10,000 a year in rental income, she would fill in her tax returns and only pay 20% on the £2,525
If I have misunderstood, please feel correct me
Cheers,
Hoang














