by doyleyboy7 on Tue Jan 17, 2006 8:00 am
Hi, I bought my mothers ex council house in 1988 and I lived in it up until 1992, then I go married and lived in rented navy houses until 2004 when I bought another house, which me and my wife live in. I charge my mother rent (she claims this back in benefit)but this only just covers the mortgage payment. If I sell the house do I have to pay CGT? The house was originally bought for £28,000 and I know have a mortgage on it for £90,000 as I have done it completely up and also given my mother money because she let me buy the house in the first place. I am only keeping it so she has somewhere to live. I have two resedential mortages, although the ex council house was set up as a let to buy. I would really like some advice on this please?
regards Jon