by mylifestory on Mon May 17, 2004 3:37 am
My parents were joint owners of a house until he died, solely in his name from 1961 to 1982, joint till 1992, then in mum's sole name from 1995 (after a legal dispute!) The house has always been tenanted.
The legal battle over its ownership resulted in a £50K total bill.
The tenanted house was fully renovated and made structurally sound a year ago at a cost of @£100K, about half of which was offset against tax, therefore the rent is still in tax credit.
Last year my mum put the house in joint names with myself (her daughter) as I had provided all the income to fund the project, had overseen it by taking a year off work.
I have now informed our accountant that as the property has been changed to a joint ownership between us and he is asking questions like
- when was the property bought (it was inherited from my dad so no value was ever set)
- details of capital improvements (can I include kitchen / bathroom costs which could not be offset against tax?)
- value of the property at the time of the transfer
I am not sure how to answer these questions, but wondered what CGT tax was payable in the circumstances, and if it was better to get an estimate of the property price as the highest possible when mum inherited it & lowest possible when it was transferred to our joint names - as an example to minimise the tax liability?
also is it better to have the house being solely mum's since 1992 (over the 10 years) or from 1995, or will CGT be worked out from an earlier date?
If anyone knows the definitive answers then please get in touch as I am willing to pay for the right advice before contacting my accountant.