Peter D wrote:In the OP's scenario. Yes. Regards Peter
I think you're saying it also applies generally. I don't see why you're so reluctant to say "yes". Actually, I do. That's because you've fundamentally (and dangerously) misunderstood s58.
s58 doesn't deem the transferee to inherit the acquisition date of the transferor. It merely refers to the value at which it was acquired. And the legislation makes this point clear, as for taper relief to work correctly on inter-spouse transfers TCGA 1992, Sch. A1, para. 15(2) had to be invented. If s58 did what Peter D claims it does, then there would have been no need to write that bit of the legislation.
It says
15 (2) Paragraph 2 ablve shall have effect in relation to any subsequent disposal of the asset as if the time when the transferee spouse acquired the asset were the time when the transferring spouse acquired it.
Read http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/MANUALS/cg1manual/cg17906.htm which makes this point very clearly.
Under TCGA92/S58, see CG22200+, an asset transferred between spouses or between civil partners passes without triggering a gain, or loss, at the time of the transaction... The effect of paragraph 15 is to ignore the disposal and acquisition in calculating the qualifying holding period [for taper relief purposes].