by Jarna on Sat Oct 01, 2005 8:27 am
Scenario: 5 members in a private limited company, all with an equal shareholding and all contributing to the business, but only three of the 5 are directors. Directors have one class of share and non-directors have another, though both share classes have identical rights.
Question: Is it legitimate to pay a higher rate of dividend on the director class shares versus the others, or is there a risk of the difference being regarded by the Inland Revenue as being taxable remuneration (i.e. PAYE)?