si0795 wrote:My french suppliers 'are' charging me 0% on VAT, so i suppose i owe HMRC the difference between the input tax (0%) and output tax (20%).
That is essentially how it works, although there are some other bits to the calculation, which confusingly won't change the end result to what you have assumed the calculation to be.
si0795 wrote:Furthermore i still havent 'fully' grasped how this all works. To simplify my understanding of VAT here is an example of a sale to a customer:
"Customer Buys a Television from me for: £340 inc VAT (20% = £68)
Im selling on Amazon so i pay a 7% fee: £23.80 (Im sure i can reclaim this as a purchase on my tax returns)
I assume you mean your corporate tax or income tax (lets call it business tax) return rather than your VAT return. I'm no expert in those taxes, but they generally work by levying tax on the PROFIT you make, subject to a certain calculation by determining what is and isn't allowable as expenses in calculating your profit. Therefore the commission, if allowable, would reduce your profit for the purposes of this calculation.
If you mean claimable on your VAT return, only VAT is recoverable on your VAT return, therefore you would need to determine if you were being charged VAT and hold a valid VAT invoice from the supplier to evidence the claim.
si0795 wrote:Now do i owe HMRC £68. Therefore i cannot possibly be making any profit. Again i still haven't fully grasped the system of VAT.
Ignoring that I can't make sense of your profit calculation, yes, you would owe HMRC £68, assuming there were no VAT on your purchases.
If you want to calculate how much profit you will earn or not in any given transaction. You add up all the costs and exclude UK VAT from them, as you can claim this back; this is your net cost base. In order to earn profit you must set your net selling price (i.e. price without VAT) at above the net cost base.
Trust this is clear?