I'm not sure I've seen this query, but apols if it has already been answered, please link me.
We are planning to move our main home and our 2 letting flats to new area of the UK. We realise that the two letting flats, when purchased, will be subject to the 3% surcharge. (I prefer to have my lets close to home and manage them myself).
In order to make the main home sale and purchase easier, our plan is to sell and purchase as separate transactions, to cut chains down to a minimum. So once the main home is sold, we will need to live somewhere while we buy the new home.
We could rent a home for ourselves to live in, but if we had "moved" one of the letting flats to the new area by the time we needed the temporary home, we could live more cheaply and flexibly in this letting flat instead. However, as that would become our main dwelling, I'm concerned that we might be exposed to SDLT on the new (and larger) dwelling when we eventually buy it, and lose any exemption we would get from the previous main dwelling sale.
I cannot interpret any help in the guidance here, except there is some talk about "intention". If this will work if that it was our intention all along, how do we clearly establish that intention, please?
Or is the only sensible plan to pay someone else rent?
Thank you for your help.
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