Hi all, your help would be greatly appreciated!
Property purchased in 1996 for £45K, lived in for five years then let ever since. In 2015 I added my wife as joint owner, 50/50. It has now sold for £500K.
Am I now right in thinking that my wife is deemed to have purchased it for £45K due to the transfer? I understand she will NOT get PPR relief as it has been let since she became the joint owner (and as such no Letting Relief).
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