Hi
Can anyone give me some guidance , please, about working out a capital gain (or loss) on Marks and Spencer shares about half of which were owned pre 31/3/82.
There has been a 1:1 scrip issue in 1984 and further dividends taken as scrip since that time.
On the Marks and Spencer website a value is given for the shares as at 31/3/82 of 153.5p which is adjusted to 76.75 when the scrip issue took place in 1984.
There was then a capital reorganisation in March 2002 when according to the M and S website "HMRC confirmed the base cost for CGT purposes was 372.35p for an ordinary share"
My questions are , please : -
1. How can I find out the value of an M and S share on individual dates (about 12 unfortunately) between 1989 and 1998 when scrip shares were taken instead of the cash dividend. I had hoped to find this information on the M and S website but it is not given anywhere. I have also searched the web for any other source of this information but cannot find it.
2.I had understood that the 1982 value was the important figure in order to work out a capital gain or loss. However, did the capital reorganisation in 2002 " rebase" the acquisition cost ? Therefore this is the figure to use when calculating the gain/loss ? Otherwise what was the point of the base cost of 372.35p agreed in 2002 with HMRC ?
3.Any other pointers in trying to work out the gain/loss correctly !
Many thanks in advance for any assistance.
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