A client company has a 50% shareholder who is providing premises to it free-of-charge.
The premises are used in the trade of the company which is generating annual profits.
The shareholder is a higher-rate taxpayer - so there is a tax benefit with the company only paying CT at 19%.
In my mind, there should be a commercial rent paid/chargeable.
Does anyone agree with me .... or am I missing something?
Many thanks.
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