I purchased a flat two years ago and has been renting it since. The value over these two years has gone up by £20,000 or so.
My questions are:
(1) I am eligible for the "36 months rule" exemption that I've read about in the other questions on this discussion board?
(2) If its only applicable for properties that have been owner-occupied at some point, does it mean that if tomorrow I decide to move into that property, that exemption would then apply to me.
Cheers
Peter Mann
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