Hi
I m currently the sole owner of a property in which both my boyfriend and I (unmarried) live.
We are contemplating buying another property as a buy to let, which would be funded as follows:
- 30% deposit coming from re-mortgaging my current property
- 70% joint BTL mortgage on the BTL property itself
We would therefore be tenants in common, with me owning 65% of the shares and my partner owning the remaining 35%. To note as well that I am in a higher tax bracket than my partner.
I have been going through various posts (in particular this one http://www.taxationweb.co.uk/forum/view ... e+Interest) but still am not very clear on the following:
Can we expense the full re-mortgage interest (which is on my own property)? Before I started reading on it, I would have expected re-nortgage interest to be simply deducted from the income that would then be shared between my partner and I on our separate self-assessments, but now I am not so clear as I have read some mentions that only the part of the re-mortgage interests commensurate with my share could be used (i.e. 65% if we use same income allocation ratio as ownership share). Thanks in advance for any views on this.
In addition, as we are not married, I understand that we could in theory agree in writing to distribute income in a different allocation than the ownership itself (e.g. 90/10). Depending on the answer to the above, how would that work in effect?
Using figures as it may be clearer than the above, if we assume £300 re-mortgage interest per month:
1/ if we use standard 65/35 income allocation, does it mean that:
a. I would expense 65% of 300, i.e. £195, and my partner would expense 35% of £300, i.e. £105 ? Or
b. that I would expense only 65% of 300, i.e. £195, and that my partner can expense 0 of that amount because the re-mortgage is in my name? Or
c. that I would expense the whole £300 and my partner 0 because the re-mortgage is in my name?
2/ Same question, but if we use a 10/90 income allocation, does it mean that:
a. I would expense 10% of 300, i.e. £30, and my partner would expense 90% of £300, i.e. £270 ? Or
b. that I would expense only 10% of 300, i.e. £30, and that my partner can expense 0 of that amount because the re-mortgage is in my name? Or
c. that I would expense the whole £300 and my partner 0 because the re-mortgage is in my name?
Many thanks in advance for your help and sorry if the post is not very clear.
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