Tax follows the accounting treatment unless there is a specific provision.
Stock is valued at the lower of cost or net realisable value. It is never revalued upwards.
This is not an individual and CGT is not applicable.
Thank you, so if the property is stock received at nil cost but held at net realisable value it would generate an immediate profit from the sound of it.
If held at Cost
CT Act 2010 refers to Taxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992 Section 8 from which 8 (3) is as follows:-
(3) Except as otherwise provided by this Act or any other provision of the Corporation Tax Acts, the total amount of the chargeable gains to be included in respect of chargeable gains in a company’s total profits for any accounting period shall for purposes of corporation tax be computed in accordance with the principles applying for capital gains tax, all questions—
(a)as to the amounts which are or are not to be taken into account as chargeable gains or as allowable losses, or in computing gains or losses, or charged to tax as a person’s gain; or
(b)as to the time when any such amount is to be treated as accruing, being determined in accordance with the provisions relating to capital gains tax as if accounting periods were years of assessment.
being determined in accordance with the provisions relating to capital gains tax as if accounting periods were years of assessment.
Which seems to be saying that the CGT Acts are used for CT chargeable gains purposes. Am I reaching too far to think there is possibility there that as inherited property has a base cost for an individual for CGT, then so would a corporate inherited property have that same base cost??