Postby someone » Fri Feb 16, 2018 10:42 am
Why ask the same question twice?
Assuming that the beneficial interest was in your name then the transfer to your wife affected nothing and CGT is due from the 1989 value. (no CGT on transfers between husband and wife)
If the beneficial interest was your mothers then the gift to you will have been at market value. No CGT due because of PPR. So CGT due on gain since 1997.
(modulo special rules because the transactions were so long ago that I don't know about)
Assuming you are selling after death, the house will have been part of her estate if she gave it to you in 1997 due to reservation of benefit. So the treatment for IHT should agree with the treatment for CGT, whichever one it is. If it was never hers then it cannot be part of her estate.