I would be grateful for any confirmation or advice on the CGT implications of the following situation:
Situation: 1 higher rate taxpayer & 1 basic taxpayer. One inherited property in 2016 (currently 2nd home).
If the inherited property (more than 2yrs ago) is part transferred without payment to husband and held as joint tenant ownership, I understand that no CGT is due as this is an inter-spouse transaction. Correct?
Then if the property was sold, both cgt allowances of currently £12,300 could be used. Correct?
The CGT on the gain could be shared 50:50 because the husband's ownership time in treated as going back to the date that the wife inherited the property and the couple's respective cgt tax rates used for their 50% shares. Correct?
If the property was not sold, would the husband have effectively triggered a change in combination of his properties and therefore be able to nominate the inherited property as the couple's main home for PPR relief purposes. Question?
If the above is the case then I understand that the cgt gain in value between inherited date and eventual sale date would be pro-rated between the time periods as a 2nd home and main home, barring the last 9 months before the sale. Correct?
Am I missing or misunderstanding anythings here? Grateful Thanks.
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