Hi. Advice here will be greatly appreciated.
Scenario
Person A - Already has two residential properties
Person B - Has never owned a residential property before
They purchase a new residential property with Person A paying for and owning 1%, and Person B paying for and owning 99%.
So question is, would the stamp duty be calculated as a 1st purchase or 2nd purchase rates? This will be Person A's third purchase of a property, but they are only buying 1%.
Hope this makes sense.
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