My husband and I each own a flat from before we married. Husband lived in his own flat for a year and then moved into mine where we have lived jointly for last 3 years. His flat was rented out for 2 years and then unoccupied.
We are now selling my flat (now) and buying a family home (wihin next 6 months). We will keep his flat for rentIng out. We will thus be replacing our main residence and should not pay the 3% surcharge. The wrinkle however is that we may need to live in his as a stopgap measure for up to 6 months. Will this mean it risks becoming our new main residence so that we have to pay the surcharge when we find the new home?
Anyone come across this please?
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