Hi everyone,
Thank you in advance for your comments.
I and my wife are trying to buy our first property in Scotland. My wife has bare ownership of a property in Greece. Our solicitor said that we have to pay tax for the property that we buy in Scotland, is that correct? Even if I get the property under my name he said that I am still liable for second property tax.
Any information is welcome.
Thank you
- Home
-
Tax News
- Budgets and Autumn Statements
- Income Tax
- Business Tax
- PAYE and Payroll Taxes, National Insurance, NICs
- Company Taxation
- Savings & Investments, Pensions & Retirement
- Capital Gains Tax, CGT
- Property Taxation
- Inheritance Tax, IHT, Trusts & Estates, Capital Taxes
- Tax Investigations & Enquiries
- VAT & Excise Duties
- Stamp Duty, Stamp Duty Land Tax, SDLT
- International Tax
- HMRC Administration, Practice and Methods
- Professionals in Practice & Industry
- General
- TaxationWeb
-
Tax Articles
- Budgets and Autumn Statements
- Income Tax
- Business Tax
- PAYE and Payroll Taxes, National Insurance, NICs
- Company Taxation
- Savings and Investments, Pensions and Retirement
- Capital Gains Tax, CGT
- Property Taxation
- Inheritance Tax, IHT, Trusts & Estates, Capital Taxes
- Tax Investigations & Enquiries
- VAT & Excise Duties
- Stamp Duty, Stamp Duty Land Tax, SDLT
- International Tax
- HMRC Administration, Practice & Methods
- Professionals in Practice & Industry
- General
- Tax Tips
-
Tax Forum
- Income Tax
- Business Tax
- PAYE and Payroll Taxes, National Insurance, NICs
- Company Taxation
- Savings & Investments, Pensions & Retirement
- Capital Gains Tax, CGT
- Property Taxation
- Inheritance Tax, IHT, Trusts & Estates, Capital Taxes
- Tax Investigations and Enquiries
- VAT & Excise Duties
- Stamp Duty, Stamp Duty Land Tax, SDLT
- International Tax
- HMRC Administration, Practices & Methods
- Professionals in Practice & Industry
- General
- Tax Jobs
- Get in Touch