I recently placed some business stock in auction; IÂ’m *not* VAT registered.
HAMMER PRICE OF GOODS SOLD: £130.00
+ VAT ON GOODS: £ 22.75
Therefore, total of £152.75 charged to purchasers
**COMMISSION & AUCTIONEER EXPENSES**: £45.54 inc VAT
STATEMENT TOTAL: £84.46 (final amount paid out to me)
I was talking with the person at the auction and they told me they are legally obliged to charge VAT on top of the hammer price of the goods. Hence the hammer price of £130 + £22.75 VAT on top of hammer price.
I was told they do this as they only deal with traders, and all goods they sell at the auction are *new* goods and so they have to charge VAT on top of the sale price irrespective of whether the trader is VAT registered or not.
I was told if the trader was VAT registered then this VAT is sent to the trader so they can then remit the necessary amount the customs & excise. Though this VAT is *not* sent to a trader who is not VAT registered. I'm assuming they remit this VAT themselves onto Customs & Excise.
Though I pointed out that if a trader who is *not* VAT registered sells goods to a retail customer then the trader does not charge VAT to the customer, so why would they be required to charge VAT to the purchasers in this instance (I'm not VAT registered). But they seemed to indicate that being an auction this made things different than to a regular retail sale.
Does this make any sense, as it doesn't really make much sense to me...
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