Hi everyone
I've read lots of the online advice both here and on HMRC, other sites etc, and can't find this specific example, so hoping someone might be able to help.
I'm an experienced leadership coach, and these days I do most of my coaching via Skype/phone.
I have been asked to do some work as a contractor to a US based coaching company A - all of it is by phone. Their only office is in the States - no offices anywhere else.
They have a major client B, who are also headquartered in the US. Their contract is for coaching services for Company B's global leadership population, who are all round the world. The contract is US based, subject to US law, and all the payments from Company B come from their HQ in the States to coaching company A in the States. Company A would then pay me, in dollars.
The question is that thorny subject, Place of Supply.
My coachees would be in the UK, other parts of Europe and outside Europe. I'm assuming at present that because my direct client A is in the US, and their contracting client B is also in the US, that I don't need to charge VAT (in fact there's no mechanism in the contract to do that anyway at present). Is that correct?
The alternative is a nightmare, because either:
My client has to pay me the VAT, but they can't reclaim it from their client, so they won't, or
My client has to setup offices in each EU country so they can invoice the local office of their client, who then have to cross charge HQ for the basic cost. So they wouldn't do this because it's a ridiculous overhead on the project..
BTW, in scale we're only talking under $30k for me.
Thanks Alan
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