A VAT registered UK company sells X amount of goods to a VAT registered EU company and sends the goods to the EU company - no VAT is chargeable.
The EU company then buys the same X amount of goods, but asks the UK company to send them direct to the EU companies residential customers in the EU country where the EU company is based. The sale is still between the EU and the UK company - is the position on VAT still the same?
Thanks in advance
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