Good Morning
I have been on various webinars but I am still struggling with the scenario below and wonder if someone could give me some advice in 'layman's Terms'.
• Our Company (UK Entity) Receives a pen Order from our Customer who is based in UK.
• Our Head Office in Germany supplies and prints pens on our behalf and ships them Directly to the End User (Our Customer's Customer) in EU.
• Our Head Office in Germany bills us (the UK entity) for the goods (our cost of sales) with zero-rated German VAT.
• Our UK Entity bills our customer in the UK for these goods with Zero Rated VAT – Is this correct?
• Our Customer in the UK Zero Rates their customer (the end user). Is this correct?
• The end user does NOT get charged customs duties or VAT as it is a Euro-Euro shipment.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you
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