My tax question is about starting to take the new state pension and exercising the option to backdate it for 52 weeks (i.e. take in arrears). I want to know whether the one-off payment of this arrears sum is taxable when it is received (in the current tax year) or taxed (somehow) as if it were received in the previous tax year when the entitlement first existed.
For example, imagine someone (who is already more than a year beyond state pension age) retiring from full time work on Apr 5th and then commencing taking state pension on Apr 6th. The 52 week of arrears would obviously be received sometime early in the first year of retirement and only add to that tax year’s pension income, in which case all pension income would be within basic tax rate and not affected by final year of employment.
Is that the correct interpretation though?
I’ve researched this online and got a thoroughly confusing mix of responses, hence posting here.
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