I have a flat that I purchased in March 1989.
Since 1992 it has been tenanted.
I live in another house with my 2nd wife which we brought together in 1998, before that I rented.
I am thinking of selling my flat. The purchase price was £52,000. It is currently valued at about £140,000. The outstanding mortgage is about £38,000.
I am a 40% tax payer.
Obviously I need proper advice, but could anyone tell me just roughly how much tax I would have to pay on the profit (I won't hold you to it!!)
I can understand about taper relief on CGT, it's the mysterious Indexation Allowance Applicable before 1998 that confuses me.
Any help appreciated. Like I say, I will definitely take proper advice, but I just want a ball-park figure... as the difference between (say) paying £20,000 and £40,000 to the government could decide whether I sell it or not. and buy a place abroad. or not!
Kind regards
Jason
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