I'm rather confused about cgt - i've done a bit of research but cannot find as yet similar scenarios to mine so wonder if you might let me know the probability of my having to pay cgt and how much it might be. I bought a property in 1999, as i had to work away from my partners home (in his name). I flitted between my property and his over the first eighteen months of my ownership of my property, and then my work changed again so i didnt need to use it very much. I decided to let it through an agent from late 2000. I made no profits, just covered costs. Since I was re-locating again - and I had a tenant in place, I decided to take advantage of my property's value which had increased to remortgage it rather than sell, for the deposit on another property. In 2002 I bought another property (my main residence). About a month after this my first tenant gave notice, and i had to find another tenant. I re-let the property for six months - the tenants were terrible and trashed the place - and as i had had an offer for the property I decided I would sell it.
The initial cost of the property was 60,000,1999
I remortgaged it for 85,000, 2002 releasing some equity.
A year later I sold it for 125,000.
A profit from when I remortgaged of 33,000.
I started to worry that I would have to pay capital gains on the whole amount from when I bought the property to when I sold it. Is this the case?? If I had sold it then just bought another property it would have been better, but i seem to have made a mess of the whole thing. As I say I'm a little confused over the whole thing now. I would appreciate any feedback or advice. thanks.
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