Hi, can anyone give me advice on a proposed gift of shareas to my wife?
I am currently a basic rate tax payer but, as a result of the changes to tax allowances in 2011/12 announced in the recent budget (and in particular the reduction in the higher rate threshold to £34,900), I am likely to pay higher rate tax on the dividends received on my modest shareholding from next year.
If I gift these shares to my wife, whose income is well below the higher rate tax threshold, so that she receives the income in the future, does this gift generate a potential CGT liability for me (asssuming, of course, that the share price at the time of the gift is greater than the acquisition price - which it isn't at the moment!)?
I'm aware that transfers of assets between husband and wife are on a "no gain/no loss" basis but I'm not sure what this means.
If I decide to proceed with the transfer, does this establish a new "base price" for CGT purposes (ie the share price at the date of transfer) - and thus a potential CGT liability for me - or is my wife deemed to have acquired the shares at the price at which I acquired them - in which case I assume that there is no CGT liability for me?
Any advice would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
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