I hope someone can help with this:
1 Purchased leasehold flat in 2000 for £50000 to rent out with a BTL mortgage.
2 Flat Valued at £130,000 in 2008 at which time the BTL was approx. £57000
3 Partner bought into flat in March 2008 and BTL mortgage adjusted accordingly (increased to £83000). Partner put in £26000 which money I had.
4 This was done at the time because there was a change in CGT rates - I really cant remember exactly why we did it but that springs to mind (taper relief?) (although didn't CGT go down at that time). I have had many transactions etc since then and I know it is ridiculous that I have mislaid any documentation we had. I may have needed the lump sum for some other transaction.
5 Partner has had share of rent and we have both paid tax accordingly.
6 Partner now transferring his share of the equity back and therefore I will repay him his £26000 as we have always agreed I would do.
7 Flat has 75 years on lease which I am currently trying to extend. Flat is probably worth at the moment approx. £120000.
8 The flat will revert to being in my name only with a mortgage of £83000 as before.
9 Therefore to summarise: Flat in my name only until March 2008 - initially bought for £50,000 in 2000, valued at £130000 in 2008. In joint names until March 2014 - return £26000 to partner - Flat back in my sole name - take on £83,000 mortgage.
10 If for example I sell the flat next year say for £130000 (with increased lease), what would be my position as regards CGT.
Am I in an even bigger mess than before I started!!!
Many thanks for any help and advice.
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