An owner occupier of their leasehold PPR *house* (not apartment), on which they pay ground rent, purchases the freehold of their home. The result if they no longer have to pay ground rent.
If, at some time in the future, they decide to sell their home, which is now a freehold house are there any tax implications? Could it be argued that purchasing the freehold made the home worth more, and liable to CGT or some other tax on the amount this increased the value of the home by?
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