Hi guys
I have a client who has gave some of his to his wife (NGNL) who then transferred them to her son (his step son) five days later.
The wife already holds shares in this company so I understand the shares would be added to her sharepool and a new base cost be calculated for the 'disposal' (transfer) to her son.
I'm a little uncomfortable with this as
a) it is effectively him transferring the shares to her son
b) by transferring it via his wife like this, the base cost and her share pool have been diluted.
Could someone please advise of the correct treatment please.
Thanks
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