I was going to start a new thread but then saw this and decided to bump/hijack it instead
In HMRC's Policy paper (Revenue and Customs Brief 9 (2014): Bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies, published 3 March 2014) that AnthonyR linked above it is mentioned:
CT, IT and CGT treatment of Bitcoin and similar cryptocurrencies
As with any other activity, whether the treatment of income received from, and charges made in connection with, activities involving Bitcoin and other similar cryptocurrencies will be subject to CT, IT or CGT depends on the activities and the parties involved.
Whether any profit or gain is chargeable or any loss is allowable will be looked at on a case-by-case basis taking into account the specific facts. Each case will be considered on the basis of its own individual facts and circumstances. The relevant legislation and case law will be applied to determine the correct tax treatment. Therefore, depending on the facts, a transaction may be so highly speculative that it is not taxable or any losses relievable.. For example gambling or betting wins are not taxable and gambling losses cannot be offset against other taxable profits.
The mention of consideration of individual facts and circumstances to determing whether a transaction is highly speculative makes it less than clear-cut in my view.
I tend to agree with the analysis here: https://www.enterprisetax.co.uk/tax-on-bitcoin/ in that HMRC want to be purposefully vague in order to avoid massive allowable capital losses if the tide turns. It is quite likely that already there are more people with realised or unrealised losses from bitcoin/crypto trading than there are winners and crucially a larger total amount of losses than the total amount of gains.
Leaving the conspiracy theory of tax maximisation strategy aside though, taking the guidance at face value and looking at the facts, what would one need to see in order to justify that it was a highly speculative investment so as to not be taxable or any losses relievable? You must be able to give certain examples or perhaps some criteria, otherwise what's the point of this note in the guidance?
Would any of the below criteria be relevant?
- monetary amount invested as a percentage of one's income or assets
- amount of active involvement (buy once and forget it versus active trading)
- length of holding (a quick trade for a week or two versus holding for months/years)
- physical holding in personal wallet versus holding in an exchange
- transacting in an exchange versus a CFD provider
- transacting in bitcoins directly versus futures or bitcoin funds (such as the US based GBTC)
- time of the transaction (was it more speculative when it first came out versus now that is more mainstream for instance)
I would like to ask opinions for my own circumstances as I was thinking of writing to HMRC about it, but before we go there, I would like to trigger a more general discussion in hope of getting a more objective answer.
Again, if HMRC says in their guidance that it depends on the individual circumstances, then it's not clear-cut that bitcoin transactions are subject to investments, and even if one is not able to articulate concrete rules that make a transaction investment versus gambling, at least there can be some examples that clearly fit either of the two extremes (admittedly leaving a lot of ambiguous cases for which HMRC's direct opinion may be required).