Here’s a conundrum:
- bought UK property in 2006 for circa £300k
- it’s now valued at circa £600k
- mortgage practically paid off
I have rented it out for last 6 months as I am now based in Spain where I am renting.
I understand that if I sell the UK property and use the funds ( some of them) to invest in a property here ( to become my main residence) I would not be liable for CGT here in Spain.
Is my understanding correct?
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