I am selling a rental property for £380k bought in my name in 2014 for £300k. It was always intended to be a family asset (evidenced by family emails) but it took until 2016 to put a charge on the deeds for 2 other relatives, stating that in the event that it must be sold, they would each be due a third of the value 'after all costs'. This took 2/3 of the value out of my estate for IHT and reassured them of their share of the asset. In the meantime I have paid all maintenance costs and income tax on the rent.
Who now pays CGT on what share? There is an overall capital gain of £60k after purchasing costs. I will only receive a third of the proceeds of the sale although I did pay for the entire property + costs in 2014.
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