Hi
About 20 years ago we bought some shares in a US company which we have left un-touched. (120 shares at $32).
In 2010 the company divided into 2 separate companies A and B - both listed on US and UK stock exchanges.
Just prior to the split we had 120 shares valued at $50 - after the split we owned 2 sets of shares:
120 shares at $26 in company A,
and
120 shares at $24 in company B.
We are now both retired and looking to sell - what cost basis do we take for both A and B in terms of calculating CGT.
My answer possibilities:
1) Cost/date basis A=$32 in 2000, B=$24 in 2010
2) Cost/date basis A=$26 in 2010, B=$24 in 2010
3) Cost/date basis A=$26 in 2010, B=$0 in 2010
4) Cost/date basis A=$32 in 2010, B=$0 in 2010
or any other combination!!
Thanks for any insight
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