Dear All,
I have another scenario for you which I would appreciate your opinion on:
Back in 2001 I bought a flat with my cousin (50/50) for buy to let purposes. The cost of purchase was £112,500 and we were joint tenants of the leasehold, later changed to tenants in common in 2007 after she had children.
In 2012 we agreed that I would buy my cousin out. To find out how much I would need to pay her we got the flat re-valued at £172,500. After calculating how much I would need to buy her out (her remaining equity calculated at £72,250 which I would have to pay her and take over the remaining mortgage) I then became sole owner and had a conveyancing company organise the change of title, etc. costing £334.
Now, here’s the rub. I want to sell and have the possibility of a private buyer offering £200,000. How is CGT calculated on such a seemingly complicated scenario?
My initial contribution was £56,250(50/50 split) plus legal expenses. To buy her out I had to pay another £72,250 which makes the total cost to me of buying the flat £128,500 plus legal expenses but there were 11 years in between.
How would the CGT be calculated in this scenario? Ironically, after buying my cousin out no capital gains were charged to her!
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