My mother-in-law, widowed in 1995, purchased a new property in her sole name in November 1997. In 2003, the property was transferred into three names of the mother and her two only children, as Tenants in Common in equal shares. The property continued as the mother’s main residence. The children did not reside at the property, with one residing abroad and is a non-UK tax resident for the last 20+ years. The mother now wishes to move into a nursing care home, selling the property as part of that transition.
What would the potential tax liability be for each individual registered owner on the property sale, e.g. CGT?
Does GWRB apply and if so, what is the effect on the property sale?
Assuming the property sale completes with CGT? (taxes?) paid by the relevant individual on their share of the sale transaction, then in terms of the remaining IHT exposure upon the mother’s subsequent demise, what would the estate liability be?
The estate, using the current full property value (not just 1/3rd share value) currently would not exceed the present IHT allowance limits. Indeed, after the property sale it would be remain below having been reduced by paying for her ongoing nursing home care. In addition, is it correct that the mother’s estate could benefit from any unused portion of IHT allowance falling from her deceased husband’s estate, she being the sole beneficiary of that estate back in 1995, if it were needed?
Are there any other tax implications of selling the property now which need to be considered?
Your thoughts would be gratefully appreciated. Thank you.
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