A new client recently came to me having received an assessment for underpaid PAYE of around £6,000 going back a few years, the HMRC letter explained that his NHS pension provider had used the wrong code and insufficient tax had been collected. So far so good, just another one of these well publicised cases of which we have had several, albeit this was a blatant error by the pension provider not using the tax code supplied by HMRC.
My current question relates to another case where HMRC have written to a client informing them that they (the client) used an incorrect Tax code for one of their employees several years ago and they now must pay the shortfall of around £1,500. The employee in question is no longer employed by the client and it transpires that the form P46 was wrongly actioned by a junior payroll clerk.
This seems inequitable, in one case the taxpayer must pay for the error in the other the employer must pay, surely one of these must be wrong, and if so which one?
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