Hello I wonder if someone could clear up a question in regards to the treatment of CGT when transferring a share of interest to their spouse before selling the property on.
A husband & wife own a buy to let property that they bought together 50/50.
As I understand it if they sold the property as it is, they would both have to pay CGT after any letting relief on any profit they make over the CGT allowance.
If however the wife transferred her 50% interest over to her husband before the sale and he then sold on the property, would he be liable for the CGT on all of the property or just the 50% he originally owned?
Thanks
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